[b-greek] Re: Meaning of the perfect tense

From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Tue Jan 09 2001 - 13:50:48 EST


On Tue, 9 Jan 2001 09:07:46 -0800 "Jon D. Boyd" <johanan@juno.com>
writes:

> John 5:24
> AMHN AMHN LEGW hUMIN hOTI hO TON LOGON MOU AKOUWN KAI PISTEUWN TWi
> PEMYANTI ME ECEI ZWHN AIWNION KAI EIS KRISIN OUK ERCETAI, ALLA
> *METABEBHKEN* EK TOU QANATOU EIS THN ZWHN.
>
> What could I legitimately say about the *tense* of METABEBHKEN (so
> that the average church attender would understand)?
>
> Thanks much,
> Jonathan Boyd
> Ankeny, IA

Hey, Jonathan:

I saw you are down I-35 just a few miles from me (Carl is a bit further,
in Missouri), so couldn't resist. Perhaps a cup of coffee sometime?

I find the Johannine interplay with the present tense - perfect tense
fascinating and foundational to his teachings. While the purpose of the
Gospel of John is given by 20:31, these things are written that you may
believe, the purpose of 1 John is given by, these things are written to
you who believe that you may know you have eternal life (5:13).

The comparison between 1 Jn 5:1, hO PISTEUWN ... EK TOU QEOU GEGENNHTAI,
and Jn 5:24, PISTEUWN ... METABEBHKEN EK TOU QANATOU EIS THN ZWHN, may
suggest what is going on is simply to say that the one who is
characterized by belief in the Son of God gives evidence that he has been
born of God in the past (and remains in the state of having been born,
that is, can be assured he remains a child of God) and that likewise at
the time of birth, also passed from death into life, the state within
which he now remains.

Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
Evangelical Free Church
Iowa Falls, IA
http://members.aol.com/dixonps

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