From: Ben Crick (ben.crick@argonet.co.uk)
Date: Fri Apr 13 2001 - 19:43:04 EDT
On Fri 13 Apr 2001 (18:15:51), Dave Washburn c/o rhutchin@aol.com wrote:
> [snippage] Matthew was obviously
> emphasizing virginity, but even if Isaiah was emphasizing the fact
> that the woman was unmarried, the implication of virginity is still
> there because that's how the culture understood the word. No
> problem, no need for another translation. As I said, if one looks at
> the word in its cultural context, this is a non-issue.
IMHO Isaiah was emphasizing to Ahaz that the Sign was to be a miraculous
one; not just some young woman getting pregnant (it happens all the time).
This is a prophetic Sign 'oWT =SHMEION of cosmic proportions, not an everyday
commonplace (Isaiah 7:11, 14a).
Ben
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