Re: Matt 16:13

From: Stephen Carlson (scc@reston.icl.com)
Date: Tue Aug 15 1995 - 13:42:55 EDT


The English usage of WHO and WHOM is actually relevant to the title of
this thread...

Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> At 10:21 PM 8/14/95, LISATIA@aol.com wrote:
> > By the way, whom do you expect to be the
> >next president?
>
> Honestly (and I don't mean to be in the least bit sarcastic), don't you
> feel a little bit silly when speaking these sentences aloud, even if not
> when writing them on paper (or electronic media)? My immediate reaction to
> hearing or seeing this construction is that the speaker/writer probably
> learned the construction from Greek or Latin grammar. I really think it is
> archaic English, and even if it is found occasionally in very formal
> writing, it surely has something of a Victorian ring to it, IMHO. I know
> there will be those who disagree with this, but that's what I really think.

I learned the rules to "who" and "whom" in grade school, but I didn't
understand them until my first year of Latin. The following usage note
from Mirriam-Webster's Ninth Collegiate Edition is instructive:

        Observers of the language have been predicting the demise of
        WHOM from about 1870 down to the present day <one of the pronoun
        cases is visibly disappearing -- the objective case WHOM --
        R.G. White (1870)> <WHOM is dying out in England, where "Whom
        did you see?" sounds affected -- Anthony Burgess (1980)> Our
        evidence shows that no one -- English or not -- should expect
        WHOM to disappear momentarily; it shows every indication of
        persisting quite a while yet. Actual usage of WHO and WHOM --
        accurately described at the entries of this dictionary -- does
        not appear markedly different from the usage of Shakespeare's
        time. But the 18th century grammarians, propounding rules and
        analogies, rejecting other rules and analogies, and usu.
        justifying both with appeals to Latin or Greek, have intervened
        between us and Shakespeare. It seems clear that the grammarians'
        rules have had little effect on the traditional uses. One thing
        they have accomplished is to encourage hypercorrect uses of WHOM
        <WHOM shall I say is calling?> Another is that they have made
        some people unsure of themselves <said he was asked to step
        down, although it is not known exactly WHO or WHOM asked him --
        REDDING (CONN.) PILOT>

This dictionary describes the usage of WHOM to be stilted, especially
for interrogative use and especially for oral use. This means that
written usages like <to know for WHOM the bell tolls -- John Donne>
(i.e., relative pronoun as an object of the preceding proposition)
is the least stilted.

Interestingly enough, the AV of Mt16:13 shows a "hypercorrect" usage:
"Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?" See also "But whom say
ye that I am?" (v15 AV). I can't say that 18th century grammarians
are to blame for this.

Stephen Carlson

-- 
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