Date: Fri Sep 29 1995 - 16:09:25 EDT
On 9-26 I asked,
>In 1:17, what is the meaning of EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN?
and in part the BibAnsMan replied,
>It is the righteousness of God being evidenced or revealed
>from faith to faith to faith to faith. Paul is pointing to
>the individual believer's faith as it is revealed, whether
>he is Jew or Greek, or whatever he may be.
The answer confuses me (I am not sure what each "it" refers to). You
seem to take EK PISTEWS as an ablative of separation modifying the verb
APOKALUPTETAI. If so, just what does "to be revealed from faith" mean?
Somehow "Paul is pointing to the individual believer's faith as it (God's
righteousness or believer's faith?) is revealed" does not explain the
construction to me.
The NIV understands EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN to modify DIKAIOSUNH. Can
something like this be justified (no pun intended) seeing these two
phrases are so far removed from DIKAIOSUNH?
A Question Man :)
David R. Mills
Applied English Center
University of Kansas
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