Date: Sat Oct 07 1995 - 16:51:20 EDT
Kenneth Johnson wrote,
>Is there any rule in Greek that would help you determine if he >is saying
"pray in the spirit and in English at the same time" >(thus proving that the
term praying in the spirit does not >always mean praying in tongues) or does
he have to be >meaning "pray in the spirit at onetime and latter with his
>mind," so he can be understood?
I don't think that there can be much doubt in I Cor 14 that Paul is
contrasting speaking, singing, praying in tongues (apparently ecstatic) and
doing the same thing in human language. If you are doing tongues and an
unbeliever comes in, he will conclude your are mad and go away. This is not
based on the meaning of any one Greek word but the context of I Cor. 12-14.
Prof. NT & Greek
LA College, Pineville, LA
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