Date: Tue Oct 10 1995 - 10:15:17 EDT
>4) v. 31 -- Is there any way from the Greek construction to >determine
whether Paul means by NOMON the "law of Moses" >or "moral law?" These are
two distinct possibilities. Which >one is the more likely? Is it the the
ten commandments >which are rendered ineffective or is it the "moral law"
which >is nullified? Does moral law transcned the law of Moses and >thus
carry a higher quality? Or neither?
JClar100@aol.com also asked in another post if the use of the article with
NOMOS made any difference.
I find it difficult to think that the article makes any difference in Paul.
Rom 2:27 is an interesting verse. "Those who are uncircumcised physically
but keep the law (with the article, obviously the law of Moses) will judge
you who have the GRAMMA (written code?) and circumcision but sin against law
(no article). The last use of NOMOS must surely include the law of Moses if
not identify it exactly. In fact, I cannot find a single use of NOMOS in
Paul that I could prove does not include the Law of Moses.
Paul's use of GRAMMA for the law is also interesting. He never uses it in a
positive sense in the main lettes. The primary passage for this is 2 Cor.
3:1-11. The contrast there is between the Spirit and the GRAMMA which in
identified as "on tablets of stone" and "dispensation of death carved in
stone." It includes the statement, "the GRAMMA kills but the Spirit makes
This is what makes it's use in 2 Tim. 3:15 so difficult, "from childhood you
have been acquainted with the hIERA GRAMMATA which are able to make you wise
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