Date: Wed Oct 04 1995 - 23:56:37 EDT
I sincerely appreciate and have enjoyed reading all the responses to my
posting on Romans 3:29-31. I have a received some good insight plus some
thought-provoking information which still lingers on...
Perhaps I have the Pauline Plague. Seriously, I'm trying to work through
the Book of Romans and will continue to ask for help.
In Romans 3:19 Paul uses the terms HO NOMOS and TW NOMW. But in verse 20 the
term is simply NOMOU and it's repeated once. In this verse (20), in both
cases, it's without the article.
QUESTION: What is the significance of the term with and without the article?
I am tempted to conclude, or at least it's a possibility, that Paul in the
latter case might mean "any legal system" as opposed to that of the Mosaic
Law. If so, would the argument he has been making be a stronger case with
this more inclusive indictment of the Greeks as well as the Jews? I
understand that Greek religion was also accompanied with a great deal of
legalism. "Forensic aspects," I think, is the term which is used.
Anyway, I'm not trying to be so theological. I am really soliciting an
answer to the question as to whether or not this possiblity stands or falls
with such an understanding of the language found in these verses.
Mt. Juliet, Tennessee
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