From: Paul Dixon - Ladd Hill Bible Church (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Oct 05 1995 - 10:14:51 EDT
To argue that an anarthrous noun is definite in a context where it occurs
earlier with the article may be a begging of the question. How does one,
then, explain the significance of the repeated use of the article (e.g.,
the anaphoric article)? Furthermore, how would the author express a
qualitative force of the noun, if it already occurred with the article?
Certainly, your appealing to John 1:1 as an example is way off base.
The qualitative force of theos in 1:1c is far preferrable to
definiteness, as that would equate the Logos to God the Father (1:1b).
Do not appeal to Colwell's Rule here, as its application here has been
shown to be incorrect.
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