From: Stephen Carlson (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Oct 05 1995 - 22:33:33 EDT
> II. JOHN 1:1 INTERPRETATION OF THEOS (GOD) WITHOUT THE ARTICLE
> There are those who do not see the Word being declared to be God, but rather
> they say He is "a god." They say this because there is no article before the
> final "theos" (God) in John 1:1. But as you will see, this is all quite
> normal in Greek.
[* * *]
Regarding Jn1:1c, I'll just make a point I don't recall was made in
the recent discussion of last August. John 8:54 (... hOTI hHMWN QEOS
ESTIN) is another example of an anarthrous, predicate QEOS preceeding
the copula. In context it is clearly definite, for it means "that he
is our God" not "that he is a god of ours."
-- Stephen Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations, : ICL, Inc. firstname.lastname@example.org : and songs chant the words. : 11490 Commerce Park Dr. (703) 648-3330 : Shujing 2:35 : Reston, VA 22091 USA
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