re: PISTIS in Romans 1, yet

From: Eric Weiss (
Date: Thu Oct 12 1995 - 04:38:20 EDT

A couple of postings indicated that I responded to David Mills' question
about Romans 1:17 by explaining what EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN meant. What I did
was quote to him (with full references) what Richard Young had to say about
this phrase in his Intermediate NT Greek grammar. I am by no means capable
of making definite pronouncements on the text, and I don't want anyone to
even assume that I have scholarly credentials--I'm just a second-year NT
Greek student. Whether Young has correctly explained what Paul means [Young
calls it a "difficult expression"] I'll have to leave to those who know Greek
better than I, but I thought Young's was a valid explanation that David Mills
should consider. All I can say is that I would think that what Paul means by
the "EK PISTEWS" part should probably be akin to what it means in Habbakuk
2:4 (in the Greek) ... which leaves EIS PISTEWS and what the whole phrase
means still up for debate.


Eric Weiss

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