Date: Thu Oct 12 1995 - 00:02:45 EDT
I have been "a reader only" for about four months and have absolutely enjoyed
the discussions...although I took Greek a zillion years ago, Paul taught it
to me in the prison at Rome in the afternoons!
Seriously, I am a Pastor in Birmingham, AL, (3 years) and originally came
from KC. A few years ago I began to refresh my Greek and today I use
Hermeneutica's Bible Works for Windows (Praise God for computers!).
I realize that this question has a lot of theological (or ecclesiastical)
ramifications, however I am only interested in the insight gained from the
text. So, here's my question. Can we tell from the Greek usage of the word
"one" (hen) in 1 Ti 3:12 if Paul is referring only to polygamy? What insight
can you give me? Many thanks...keep up the good work.
In Christ, Randy <><
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