Date: Sat Oct 14 1995 - 21:12:36 EDT
My copy of Bauer, Arndt, and Gingrich (which I consult far too little) makes
this comment :
IOUNIAS, A, O Junias (not found elsewh., prob. short form of the common
Junianas; cf., Bl-D. $ 125,2; Rob. 172) a Jewish convert to Christianity, who
was imprisoned w. Paul Rom. 16:7 s. on andronicus.-- The possibility, fr. a
purely lexical point of view, that this is a woman's name IOUNIA, as Junia
(Mlt.-H. 155; ancient commentators took andr. and Junia as a married couple.
S. IOULIA), is probably ruled out by the context (s. Ltzm.., Hdb. ad loc.).
Does "from a purely lexical point of view" mean that if it is a shortened
form of Junianas that the shortened form has become feminine? If so, does
this happen often?
Byron T. Bezdek
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