From: Stephen Carlson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Oct 24 1995 - 14:49:40 EDT
This discussion on grammatical tense is very interesting, so I am wondering
if it could shed any light on why Mark, during one of Jesus's discourses
on the Sabbath, switches from the historical present [LEGEI 2:25] to the
imperfect [ELEGEN v27] for the pronouncement. The Lukan parallel is similar
but the switch is from the aorist [EIPEN 6:3] to the imperfect [ELEGEN v5].
(Matthew lacks a parallel to Mark's KAI ELEGEN AUTOIS of Mk2:27.)
Is there something about the imperfect that could suggest a punchline
here, or does it reflect the notion that this was one of many occasions
when Jesus proclaimed that the Son of Man is lord of the sabbath? (Hmm,
Luke's KURIOS ESTIN TOU SABBATOU hO hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU 6:5 provides some
ammunition in the exegesis of Jn1:1c...but I digress.) Any other ideas?
-- Stephen Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations, : ICL, Inc. email@example.com : and songs chant the words. : 11490 Commerce Park Dr. (703) 648-3330 : Shujing 2:35 : Reston, VA 22091 USA
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