Re: Grammatical Tense, LEGW, & Mark

From: Philip L. Graber (
Date: Thu Oct 26 1995 - 08:59:20 EDT

On Wed, 25 Oct 1995, Rod Decker wrote:

> 4. The clear and distinct function of the perfective and
> imperfective aspects in this passage suggest that further
> explanation is unnecessary. (That does not mean that more couldn't
> be said other than what I've summarized here [e.g., I didn't
> comment on the imperfect form in v. 4], but that the reason for
> the use of the verb forms is adequately explained by the discourse
> function of aspect.)

But to note the discourse function of the forms is only to note
distribution of forms within the discourse in correlation with discourse
functions. In order to EXPLAIN those functions, one needs to account for
WHY these particular forms are distributed in this way; i.e., what is the
function of these forms such that they can be used in this way in the
discourse? What accounts for your understanding of the discourse
functions in the first place? Does that make sense? [I'm in a hurry on my
way to class; I'm afraid I'm not making sense right now.]

Philip Graber Graduate Division of Religion
Graduate Student in New Testament 211 Bishops Hall, Emory University Atlanta, GA 30322 USA

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