From: Kenneth Litwak (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Oct 30 1995 - 23:48:37 EST
So, Eric, now we see clearly and know as we are known? I don't want
to get into a theological argument, which is why I didn't reply to
the original question and Carl Conrad judiciously avoided,
but if we're looking at the context
that notion is included in the "perfect", and I would have trouble
seeing anything which has happened heretofore qualifying. I, at least,
do not see things clearly.
> The obvious object to what "perfect" is referring
> to is clearly given in the previous two verses, esp.
> in the previous verse. Paul is telling us that the
> miraculous gifts which the Holy Spirit distributed
> to early Christians are to be done away with. When
> will prophecies fail, tongues cease, and knowledge
> vanish? When they are needed no more...When that
> which is "perfect" or "complete" is come. The purpose
> of these gifts were to bring the Lord's message into
> the world and confirm it. When the message was completed,
> that which was done in part (vs 9) ceased because we
> no longer need miraculous revelation.
> Eric Vaughan
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