Re: "Perfect"?

From: Leo Percer (
Date: Tue Oct 31 1995 - 14:49:22 EST

IN%"" "Eric Vaughan" says:

>The obvious object to what "perfect" is referring
>to is clearly given in the previous two verses, esp.
>in the previous verse. Paul is telling us that the
>miraculous gifts which the Holy Spirit distributed
>to early Christians are to be done away with. . . .
>[stuff deleted] The purpose
>of these gifts were to bring the Lord's message into
>the world and confirm it. When the message was completed,
>that which was done in part (vs 9) ceased because we
>no longer need miraculous revelation.

Now, I really wanted to avoid this can of worms since it was first opened a
few days ago. After the recent conversation on tongues on this list, I
know we are going to have a hard time agreeing! Oh well . . .

Eric, just what exactly do you mean that "when the message was *completed*,
that which was done in part (vs.9) ceased because we no longer need
miraculous revelation"? Are you insinuating/claiming that when Scripture
became canon that no miracles were needed any longer? Or, are you claiming
that once the message of the gospel was brought to its completion (whatever
*that* may mean), miracles ceased? Now, I realize that this may not sound
like a good question for a Greek list, but is the reference to TO TELEION
in v. 10 really the message/prophecy (the earliest antecedent of "mature"
or "complete")? Are there other references that could work? Could Paul
have in mind AGAPE as that which must become perfect/complete? Or that
Christians should be complete in practicing AGAPE? The danger of a
cessationist argument based on this verse is that it requires some fancy
footwork regarding what Paul had in mind. What is the referent to TO
TELEION in 1 Corinthians? Ideas?

Leo Percer
Waco, TX

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