Jn 1:1

From: Steve Easley (seasley@netside.com)
Date: Tue Nov 07 1995 - 17:50:52 EST

Is the Moffat translation of this verse,
"..and the word was divine"

being based on the idea that the indefinite article as in "a
or "of a godlike (divine) sort was the logos"?

Have any of you ever heard of the Jehovah's Witnesses using
rendering, "...and a god was the word."

Can anybody tell me in a nutshell how Moffat relates to the JW
and are they both misleading?

(In other words, is Christ truly made equal to God in this
verse from a
purely non-biased POV if possible). If Iesous is made equal
with God, what
about the next verse?

Thanks in advance,

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