From: Patrick J. Brennan (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Nov 11 1995 - 21:35:42 EST
>Date: Sat, 11 Nov 1995 18:26:35 +0400
>To: "Patrick J. Brennan" <email@example.com>
>From: firstname.lastname@example.org (Carlton L. Winbery)
>Subject: RE: John 21:15-17
>>On Nov. 8th, 1995 Eric Vaughan wrote:
>>I was discussing this passage with someone a good while ago, and I'd like
>>to know what you think. Jesus asks Simon, "AGAPAS ME" But Simon answers,
>>"FILW SE" This happens twice and then Jesus finally asks the question
>>Simon had been answering, "FILEIS ME;" Is this a deliberate refusal to
>>answer Jesus' question on Simon's part (and why) or do you think that
>>John's recount of the story is not very careful and this difference has
>>little significance? I understand the symbolism of Simon's three
>>confessions of love after denying Christ three times, but why would he only
>>half answer Jesus' question? Is the difference John's fault or Simon's?
>>I also have the same question about "BOSKA/POIMAINE TA ARNIA/PROBATA MOU"
>>These examples I think show that John's choice of "AGAPAW" and "FILEW" were
>>synonyms and nothing more.
>I would add to this conclusion and the example from John 5 where FILEW is
>used where those who see a discinction between AGAPAW and FILEW, that there
>are several other examples of that in John (I do not have a concordance
>with me). I would also raise the question of what language Jesus was
>speaking with his disciples. Does anyone know if such a distinction could
>be made in Aramaic? I know that in Deilistch's translation of the NT into
>Hebrew, he uses only one word for love in this passage.
>Concerning the transliteration of the omega, we usually use w, and do not
>show the final sigma. We have had several post on this lately so the
>archive may be helpful here.
>fax 318 442 4996
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