From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Nov 30 1995 - 13:04:05 EST
At 12:26 PM 11/30/95, Edward Hobbs wrote:
>Carl Conrad raises the question about the accentuation of Iounian in Rom.16:7
>with a question about how far back these accents go.
> We went through all this a couple of years ago or so; we seem to
>have to re-invent the wheel with regularity!
> The oldest uncials of course do not have accents. Was there a
>(secret, never-revealed) quasi-Masoretic tradition among early Christian
>copyists as to accentuation? To ask the question is to answer it.
> But the really more significant question is: What is the tradition
>of accentuation of this name? And the fact is that the final circumflex is
>VERY RECENT! (I.e., 20th century!). To my knowledge, NO MS. gives this accent!
>Even Hort's 1881 text gives IouNIan, acute on penult, thus feminine. And
>this accentuation is also found inserted by second corrector even in B and D.
> Wierdly enough, Metzger's note on this passage only discusses the
>variant "Ioulian", saying not a word about changing a woman into a man and
>moving+changing the accent from its universal form in the MS tradition!
> The feminine name "Iounia" is very common. The (imaginary, masculine)
>name "Iounias" is non-existent. It was invented (clumsily, as Carl notes!)
>to eliminate a female apostle. Bauer's largely-excellent Lexicon is marred
>by this entry as one of his stupidest definitions (that it is the common
>woman's name Iounia "is ruled out by the context"!). If Danker doesn't
>change this is his latest revised translation, I will never drink Scotch
>with him again. [Above: this IN his latest]
> Heaven knows, we have enough problems with male chauvinism, without
>having to INSERT them into the text!
Thanks, Edward. I knew we'd discussed this before (repeatedly atque ad nauseam!), but I don't recall our having talked about the accents before.
I'll call Danker tonight and tell him about the scotch-drinking sessions! He still makes his home here.
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