From: Kenneth Litwak (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Nov 29 1995 - 18:53:01 EST
Carlton, I noted myself Metzger's argument about Mark not using nai elsewhre.
However, I somewhat question the wisdom of making textual decisions
based on word usage in that way. If an author uses a word one time, then he
or she uses it one timme. I don't find that a convincing argument. I don't
see how the reading of P45 et al explains the other readings in v.28, however,
so mmaybe I'm mssiing something? Thanks.
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