Date: Sun Dec 03 1995 - 01:40:17 EST
Why are the Words "but by every word of God" omitted from the NIV version of
Luke 4:4 in the New Testament?
It is found in the King James,the Vulgate,and [(possibly) I cannot read
in the Byzantine texts (see below).
Luke 4:4 ----- VULGATE:
et respondit ad illum Iesus scriptum est quia non in pane solo vivet homo
sed in omni verbo Dei
Luke 4:4 ------ BYZANTINE:
KAI APEKRIQH IHSOUS PROS AUTON LEGWN GEGRAPTAI OTI OUK EP ARTW MONW ZHSETAI
[O] ANQRWPOS ALL EPI PANTI RHMATI QEOU
Does the Codex Sinaiticus omit the phrase "but by every word of God" in Luke
Do the Alexandrian texts omit this phrase while the Greek Orthodox texts
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