From: Marshall T. Brown (74731.176@compuserve.com)
Date: Fri Jan 12 1996 - 06:16:47 EST
Greetings in Christ from Vsetin, Czech Republic!
I've got a question as to the use of the "gar" in Phil 1:8.
1) Is the "gar" illative, explanatory, or emphatic?
I see that the NASB translates it 'for' which leaves it ambiguous,
while a Czech translation of the Bible known as the Kralicky translation
translates it "zajiste" meaning "certainly." I've also noticed that a few
translations, both English and Czech, do not translate it at all.
2) Based upon your answer in #1 then what do you see it pointing back to
or explaining?
Thank you for your input!
Marshall T. Brown Vsetin, Czech Republic
74731.176@compuserve.com
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