Phil 1:8 "gar"

From: Marshall T. Brown (74731.176@compuserve.com)
Date: Fri Jan 12 1996 - 06:16:47 EST


        Greetings in Christ from Vsetin, Czech Republic!

        I've got a question as to the use of the "gar" in Phil 1:8.

        1) Is the "gar" illative, explanatory, or emphatic?
            I see that the NASB translates it 'for' which leaves it ambiguous,
while a Czech translation of the Bible known as the Kralicky translation
translates it "zajiste" meaning "certainly." I've also noticed that a few
translations, both English and Czech, do not translate it at all.

        2) Based upon your answer in #1 then what do you see it pointing back to
or explaining?

        Thank you for your input!

        Marshall T. Brown Vsetin, Czech Republic
        74731.176@compuserve.com



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