From: Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Feb 14 1996 - 03:45:37 EST
>The first phrase of Matthew 24:30 (I'm not sure if I'm
>transliterating in the standard way for this group - I'm using "H"
>for eta) "KAI TOTE PHANHSETAI TO SHMEION TOU UIOU TOU ANTHROPOU EN
>OURANW," is usually rendered "the sign of the Son of Man will appear
>in the sky" (NIV) or along those lines. But is it the "sign" that
>is in heaven or the "Son of Man"? Is it grammatically possible that
>the "sign" is that the Son of Man is in heaven?
Perhaps TOU UIOU is what B&W in the Syntax of the NT call a genitive of
apposition, i.e., the sign is the Son of Man.
Carlton L. Winbery
LA College, Pineville, La
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