From: Russ Reeves (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 15 1996 - 23:50:56 EST
Bruce Terry wrote in response to my question on Matthew 24:30:
> I agree! The sign of the parousia in verse 3 is finally explained in verse 30
> as being the Son of man in heaven. (snip) To us it seems so
> commonplace, since we've heard it so many times before; to them it was novel.
> Jesus was finally telling them that when they see him coming in the sky, it is
> time for the parousia.
In light of some of the answers I have received (and thank you for
the feedback), maybe I should clarify the way I am interpreting this
passage to make sure it is grammatically feasible. (I'm aware that
this isn't a theology forum and am not trying to launch a theology
debate). First, I think this passage refers to the 70 AD destruction
of the Temple. Second, I think that the sign is that the Son of Man
is enthroned in heaven (as in Acts 2:33-36). I think this is a fair
way to approach the text, but since my greek ability is limited I
wanted some feedback.
My apologies if I have ventured from the purpose of this list.
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