Re: Matthew 24:30

From: Jim Beale (
Date: Mon Feb 19 1996 - 22:26:26 EST

At 4:24 PM 2/19/96, Alan Repurk wrote:

> [...] 70 CE [...]

This is just a trivial question, and completely unrelated to B-GREEK,
and so I beg your indulgence in this. What is the driving force
behind the transition from A.D. to C.E.? Is it because we have become
so ignorant of Latin that we don't even remember that A.D. means Anno
Domini, year of our Lord? Or is it part of the secularization process
that is continuing to remove all reference to Christ from the public
arena? Or is there some other reason? And why Common Era (I think
that's what it means)? What's so common about it?

Again, I apologize for this completely impertinent intrusion. (At least
it's better than those pesky magazine ads. ;-)


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