strict grammar

From: brent justin anduaga-arias (
Date: Fri Mar 01 1996 - 14:25:04 EST

  First, I would like to thank everybody for their answers on "graphe
artios" - I have been swamped with terrific information.

  I have another question this time pertaining to Matthew 19:6. Most all
my English translations have "...let not man put asunder. (RSV)" I would
like to know if the Greek under this has the sense of "it is IMPOSSIBLE
for man to put asunder" or "man SHOULD NOT put asunder." The "let" in
English translations suggest the latter choice. However I am curious if
this rendering was influenced by the presence of what appears to be an/the
exception clause of Matthew 19:9. In other words, if this exception
clause (or any other) were not in the text, would there be any purely
grammatical reason why Matthew 19:6 should not be rendered rouphly as "it
is IMPOSSIBLE for man to put asunder?"


Brent Arias
University of New Mexico

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