Re: 'Bishops'

From: Jim Beale (
Date: Fri Mar 29 1996 - 08:23:36 EST

At 10:30 AM 3/29/96, Alistair O'Connell wrote:

>I wonder if you could help me out?
>In 1 Timothy 3:2 it says 'the husband of one wife....' now I have
>done much looking into this and would like your advice, thoughts,
>1. It must be 'Husband'?
>2. It must be 'Male'?
>3. It need not be 'Husband' i.e. married only?

ANHR evidently denotes the male in various respects. Although EDNT indicates
that ANHR "can denote any human being" (i.e. inclusive of women,) the examples
given don't seem to support the assertion.

In 1 Timothy, ANHR appears 5 times (2:8, 2:12, 3:2, 3:12, and 5:9) and
is masculine each time. In particular, in 3:2 ANDRA is the "husband of
one wife" and there doesn't seem to be any way to render GUNAIKOS as
either husband or wife. As far as I know, it always means "wife" or
at least "the female."

>I know that this does not 'sound out' too well but please bare with me!

I certainly intend on keeping my clothes on, if you don't mind ;-)


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