From: Gary S. Shogren (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Apr 01 1996 - 21:57:16 EST
Paul Dixon writes:
> The NASB violates its own principles of translation in 2 Thess
>2:6. Whenever a word is translated that does not appear in the Greek,
>the NASB translators say they put that English word in italics so the
>reader will know. In the Thessalonians passage, however, the rendering
>"And you know what restrains him now" is all put in regular type. "Him,"
>however, is not to be found in the Greek. It should have been put in
Although I can't put my finger on another example right this minute, I have
noticed that the NASB is not at all consistent with the "italics" rule. Any
examples out there?
Gary S. Shogren
Biblical Theological Seminary
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