Re: Grammar question

From: David Moore (
Date: Thu Apr 25 1996 - 22:15:31 EDT wrote:
> I'm working on an exegetical paper on Acts 19:11-20, and I've
> something which seems strange. Perhaps it's just my lack of
experience with
> Greek. . . .
> Normally, in the sequence of tenses, an aorist participle means that
> action described in the participle occurs before the action of the
main verb.
> In Acts 19:14, however, the aorist participle ("having answered")
seems to
> be contemporaneous with the main verb ("he said"). To translated it
> according to the usual sequence of tenses would result in something
> this: "But after he had answered, the demon said"--which doesn't make
> Is this an exception to the usual rules of tense sequence? I think
> noticed it earlier in Acts, as well. Any tips? references to
> grammars I've overlooked?
> Thanks in advance for your help.

        The cases of APOKRINOMAI as an aorist participle with verbs that
express speech should be treated as a case apart since this
construction probably takes its form from the Semitic background of the
Gospels (Moulton [i.e.
Turner] III:155-56).

David L. Moore                             Director
Miami, Florida, USA                        Department of Education                     Southeastern Spanish 
District            of the Assemblies of God

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