RE: EPH 5:21

Date: Thu May 02 1996 - 21:49:06 EDT

Philip Graber wrote in response to my quote of BDF 468:

> This is most unsatisfactory. There are a cluster of imperatives
> starting in 5.15. One must explain why 5.21 has a participle. There is
> clearly some kind of "imperatival force," but I don't think this is very
> informative. The interesting question is: Why is it a participle?

In discourse terms, I think the writer chose the participle with imperative
force (instead of an imperative finite verb) to show subordination: 5.21 hangs
on the imperative PERIPATEITE in 5.15, and does not stand alone or start an
independent section itself.

Grace and peace,

PLStepp, Baylor University

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