Date: Tue May 14 1996 - 15:17:57 EDT
1) Is a wife's being bound (deO) by God's law to her husband (Rom.7:2; I
Cor.7:39) the equivalent of her being "under bondage" (douloO, I Cor.7:15)?
Is the metaphorical use of deO equivalent to the metaphorical use of
2) Again, in I Cor.7:15, does the perfect "ou dedoulOtai" mean "has NEVER
been enslaved"--meaning "is not now 'enslaved,' and never was 'enslaved'"?
Or, doesn't the prepositional phrase "in such (cases)" (en tois toioutois)
limit "ou dedoulOtai" to the situation in which the unbeliever has divorced
his believing wife?
3) Finally, (still in I Cor.7:15) does the fact that "chOridzetai" (divorces)
is present tense mean that the divorce is not complete--thus the couple is
still married--at the point at which the believing wife is "not under
Will any of you Greek scholars take on these questions? I would greatly
appreciate your taking the time to do so. Thanks!
Missoula, MT 59802
"Montana--the state where Unabombers and Freemen go to get caught."
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