From: Carlton L. Winbery (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 23 1996 - 09:24:05 EDT
Rod Rogers wrote;
>I was wondering if you could give me some advice on translating "for the
>remission of sins". I haven't posted this to the b-greek list because it
>might couse more problems than it's worth, (generate more heat than light).
>I have run up against a pastor that has challenged me on "baptism for the
>remission of sins". I don't have a problem "proving" that justification is
>by faith or that we are saved "by grace through faith".
>I was wondering if you knew of any texts where grammar would shed light on
>the problem, such as the antecedent of a noun that would tie something
>together, or maybe where a noun and an adjective or participle that are of
>different genders there by showing that they can't be linked together?
>J. R. Mantey's article on page 104 in his grammar in reference to Acts 2:38
>helps but I'm looking for something a little more "convincing". I was just
>wondering if you knew of any grammatical reasons why baptism is not "for"
>the remission of sins in the sense that baptismal regenerationists hold.
>Any insight will be appreciated. You don't have to make this "pretty". If
>you want to just cut and paste some things together I'll sort through it.
See the article by Frank Stagg in the March issue of Journal of Biblical
Lit. 1951. He argued that the construction EIS AFESIN was causal and
compared it with EIS TO KHRUGMA IWNA of Matt. 12:41. Very convenient for
Fogleman Prof. Religion
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