From: Carlton L. Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Sun May 26 1996 - 07:29:40 EDT
Wes Williams wrote;
>I'm not entirely certain I understand the question since John does use the
>pronoun "it" in John 14:17:
>to pneuma ths alhqeias, ... hoti ouv qewrei auto oude ginwskei
>the spirit of the truth, ... because it (the kosmos) neither beholds it nor
>The greek "auto" is neuter and refers to "to pneuma", also neuter.
>Some english translations translate "auto" as "him" in this verse, but should
>be "it." Romans 8:16 and 8:26 also use "it" in connection with the holy
>Interestingly, the KJV translates "auto" as "it" in 8:16 and 26, but "him" in
>John 14:17. It should be "it".
>So the statement that Christians are overlooking this obvious fact is
>if I understand the question/ assertion correctly.
OUDEIS BALLEI OINON NEON EIS ASKOUS PALAIOUS . . . hRHXEI hO OINOS hONEOS
TOUS ASKOUS, KAI AUTOS EKCUQHSETAI. . . Would you translate this from
Luke 5:37, "No one puts new wine into old wineskins . . . the new wine will
burst the skins and HE will be spilled out." AUTOS is masculine! You
cannot use gender in Greek to determine the gender of the pronoun used in
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
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