(no subject)

From: wes.williams@twcable.com
Date: Fri May 31 1996 - 14:43:23 EDT

Larry Kruper wrote:
>> However, as we have seen, it IS appropriate in Greek for the original writer
or speaker to make that conversion on his own, without the exegis of the
translator, therefore it is not necessary for the translator to do so. <<

This appears to be true in the case of Mark 5, where Jesus referenced the greek
neuter "paidion" (young child) with greek feminine "autE" (English 'her').

Since I moved during the past few days and I am still in a state of rigor
mortis, I haven't been able to pursue a study of this. A question for the list
researchers is:

"How widespread is this in Greek where a masculine/feminine part of speech
references a neuter noun as it does in Mark 5:41, 43?" Or a neuter part of
speech references a masculine/ feminine noun?

Wes Williams

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