Date: Mon Jun 03 1996 - 17:20:29 EDT
Eric Weiss wrote:
. My question (for me at least)
>still remains (unless I just didn't properly understand Harris), i.e., if in
>Acts 2:38 one is baptized FOR (i.e., to receive) forgiveness of sins, is one
>baptized in Matthew 3:11 FOR (i.e., to receive) repentance?
John's baptism did indeed aim at producing repentance, as its goal was to
turn the Jews in faith to Jesus (cf. Lk.1:17; Acts 19:4). So, the use of EIS
in Matt.3:11 points forward (aim, purpose), just as it consistently does
elsewhere in Scripture.
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