Date: Thu Jun 06 1996 - 23:48:03 EDT
In a message dated 96-06-06 17:35:41 EDT, Jan wrote:
>>I COR 14:26-40.
>Most modern text critics seem to believe that verses 33b-35 are a later
>interpolation in the original. This is not relevant to Greek, but I
>though you'd might want to know if you work with these verses.
On the contrary, as a *textual* question, the issue seems to be merely
placement - that is, do the words belong here, or after verse 40 - and a
cursory glance at my UBS text suggests that the weight of the evidence is in
favor of the former. As far as Grk mss are concerned, the evidence for the
latter is limited to a 6th century uncial (Claromontanus), two 9th century
uncials, and a 12th century miniscule, the margin of which includes the
verses in the usual place. 5 latin mss have the passage following vs. 40
(including the latin of Claromontanus). UBS 3rd edition text gives a "B"
rating to including the vss. at the customary position. While some may argue
that the words shouldn't be included at all, such an argument would not
strong if based on the evidence of the mss.
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