From: Stephen C Carlson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Jun 11 1996 - 09:43:09 EDT
>While reading Ephesians this morning, I discovered that the Greek text
>(3:12) does not seem to be accurately represented in the NIV, ASV, RSV, NASV.
>At issue is the phrase DIA THS PISTEWS AUTOU. I keep coming up with "through
>his faith (or faithfulness)" The above translations all indicate "faith in
>him." The exception is the KJV which, I think, more accurately says, "by the
>faith [faithfulness] of him." What is going on here?
It's actually ambiguous; it could mean either "through his faith[fulness]"
or "through faith in him." For the latter construction, Greek uses the
objective genitive, where English requires a prepositional phrase with the
preposition IN. Prepositions (and articles) are the hardest things to get
right in a foreign language; they are the parts of speech least amenable to
a direct, literal translation.
-- Stephen C. Carlson, George Mason University School of Law, Patent Track, 4LE email@example.com : Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs http://osf1.gmu.edu/~scarlso1/ : chant the words. -- Shujing 2.35
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