Re: pronoun/antecedent agreement

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Thu Jun 06 1996 - 07:52:17 EDT

I've been following (as best I could) this confused and confusing
discussion with some queer combination of amusement and bewilderment.
Stephen may have correctly isolated the original source of the difficulty,
but one common usage that could be bewildering--it's so common in classical
Greek that I don't know whether I would have noticed it as an unusual
feature in the NT--is the assimilation of the relative pronoun hOS, hH, hO
to the case of its antecedent, EVEN when the relative pronoun must refer to
the subject of its own clause. In that case it is LOGICALLY nominative, but
is by no means infrequently found in an oblique case identical with that of
the antecedent substantive.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
(314) 935-4018 OR

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