Re: Synonyms in John 21

Date: Mon Jun 24 1996 - 16:18:19 EDT

     Randy wrote,
     <<without the article the ordinal seems to indicate another instance
     of the same sort as previous ones; with the article it seems to point
     an additional instance that differs from the previous ones.>>
     I considered many of the verses you listed and I would like to
     respectfully submit that another conclusion is warranted than the
     conclusion you reached. The article is a pointer (Robertson). It
     draws attention to a PARTICULAR instance. This PARTICULAR instance is
     not necessarily a DIFFERENT instance, although it may be the same
     instance. Drawing attention to a PARTICULAR instance would not of
     necessity affect the translation of the rest of the sentence.
     For example, to cite an example of an articular instance from your
     Many citations in Mt, Mr, Lk: "... on the third day"
     This is a PARTICULAR third day. Let's consider an anarthrous use
     before considering how it may be *different.*
     From the anarthrous list:
     Mt 22:39 and Mk 12:31;
     "... second (commandment)... is this"
     Even though anarthrous, the second commandment is a different instance
     than the first commandment, just as the third day is a different
     instance than any other day. So I suppose I do not accept the premise
     that an arthrous vs anarthrous ordinal *mandates* that the respective
     instances be different or alike. I view the articular use as drawing
     attention to a *specific* instance, whether or not a *different*
     instance. Although I'm sure the grammarians will provide more as to
     the use of the article. (We haven't heard from Edward Hobb's yet, have
     << In other words, I suggest that the use of the article is positive
     evidence that the context DEMANDS us to understand Jesus' third
     question as different from the second. Since the only difference is
     the verb, the two verbs must mean something different here; therefore
     this is not an instance of free variation.>>
     I suppose I do not see it as positive, nor a demand to apply to Jesus'
     third question. Even if it arguably *were* a *different* rather than
     particular instance, it seems a stretch to attempt to prove that the
     verb must mean something different, although I agree with your
     conclusion. The best argument that the verbs are different are their
     respective differing usages in the scriptures and elsewhere, as many
     have already dome in this thread.
     Wes Williams

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