From: Dave Haggard (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Aug 02 1996 - 10:26:56 EDT
For as much of a "scholar" as I am <heh!>, I consider the use of the two words in the same statement as being significant. If AGAPH is the Godly, unconditional, sacrificial love that we usually consider it to be, and you consider the context, then AGAPH and FILEW are sharply contrasted. I believe John intended to make this contrast to illustrate the difference between what we often _think_ love is, and what the love of God truly is.
From: Jonathan Robie[SMTP:firstname.lastname@example.org]
Sent: Thursday, August 01, 1996 5:18 PM
Subject: AGAPH and FILOS in John 15:13
There was a lot of discussion on AGAPH and FILEW in John 22 about a month ago. I
just noticed that AGAPH and FILOS (closely related to FILEW) are used in the
same verse in John 15:13:
MEIZONA TAUTHS AGAPHN OUDEIS EXEI INA TIS THN YUXHN
AUTOU QH UPER TWN FILWN AUTOU
I'm not a Greek scholar or a linguist, but to me this looks like possible
evidence that Koine Greek does not draw a strong distinction between AGAPH and
So what do the Greek scholars out there think?
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