From: Robbert Veen (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Aug 07 1996 - 22:06:21 EDT
Mark translates or interprets TAL[E]ITHA as TO KORASION at 5:41. I
understand that TAL[E]ITHA can mean "lamb"
Yastrow gives 'lamb' as the second meaning of the male form thalja
(Aramaic), which seems to occur in some instances in Targum Yonathan. I
didn't look up all his references, but I suspect that TYonathan uses thalja
because it seems nearer to Biblical Hebrew 'taleh'. I found no evidence of
'talitha' meaning 'lamb', so we are left with just the meaning 'young
girl'? Perhaps you have another source?
A related problem: we pronounce tal-i-tha, Yastrow gives the vocalisation
tal-je-tah, which is probable, given the pronunciation of the male form
tal-jah. Any comments?
I'm at it - presumably, TO KORASION is vocative - is it common for the
vocative to include the definite article?
I'm not a professional greek scholar, but I found in the grammar that is
most commonly used at the University of Amsterdam (Blass, Debrunner,
Rehkopf; Grammatik des Neutestamentlichen Griechisch) that the vocative is
replaced by the definitive article in cases where the one being spoken to
is lower in rank (Attic Greek), a usage that was broadened in NT and LXX .
(God, in Luke 18:11 e.g.). Blass, par. 147.
I think it is appropriate for me to introduce myself, since I am new to
I am Robbert Veen, from Lelystad, the Netherlands. I studied philosophy,
theology and semitic languages at the University of Amsterdam. I have a
M.A. in theology and philosophy. For theology I specialized in OT-theology.
I'm currently writing a thesis on Mennonite ecclesiology, and I'm studying
to become a minister for the Dutch Mennonite Church.
I've published on 19th century philosophy and philosophy of religion.
English is not my native language, so I hope you will forgive me the many
mistakes I'll probably make in my postings. I hope you'll understand me
despite of them.
Greetings from Holland,
Robbert A. Veen
Well, there it is...
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