From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Aug 21 1996 - 07:16:07 EDT
At 7:50 PM -0500 8/20/96, Wes.Williams@twcable.com wrote:
> I was under the impression that the Greek present active indicative
> referred to durative time but not necessarily to eternal time. In
> reviewing the archives I see that this point was already covered.
> Someone earlier posted a remark regarding John 14:9;
> Tosoutw xronw meq umwn EIMI kai ouk egnwkas me, Filippe;
> So long a time with you I am and not you have known me?
> Here EIMI is used with the expression of Phillip being with Jesus "so
> time." Phillip had only known Jesus for roughly three years, certainly
> enough time to know Jesus in Jesus' mind. To maintain that Phillip
> Jesus earlier than that in a timeless sense, well, that would
> something we would need to discuss over a cup of tea.
Here we go again. Need I say that I'm confused? Pretty obvious, isn't it? I
just noticed that phrase TOSOUTWi XRONWi and it occurred to me to wonder
why in the world it's DATIVE if its referring to HOW LONG Philip has known
Jesus. Why is it not ACCUSATIVE? What are the implications of the dative
usage here--or is this one (other) Johannine "solecism"? Something I'll
have to check on once I get to the office this morning!
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
firstname.lastname@example.org OR email@example.com
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