Re: 2 Thess. 6-7

Date: Wed Sep 04 1996 - 18:12:30 EDT

Paul, what I meant by the comment about translation Greek was a very loose
reference to the possibility that in narrative accounts some of the oddities
we see in Greek can be attributed to the writer's translating into literal
Greek a statement that was originally made in Aramaic or Hebrew, but in retro-
spect that is probably out of place here (my original thought was that this
tendency might occur even in non-narrative texts, but that is questionable at
best). So I am left with the theory that the purpose may not be that of the
subject of the main verb, as you argue, and that still seems very strange from
the viewpoint of Greek grammar (but I won't rule it out for now).
I do see v. 7 as explaining v. 6, the point being that Paul could be saying
(in anticipation of a reader's response that in fact the the antichrist alread

is here) that the lawless one is already at work (but not yet revealed), andthat the restrainer will continue his activity for some time. Thus this verse
would explain to some why Paul's statement in v. 6 is true, when they might
think otherwise. I gather from your reference to the neuter that you see it
as an argument for linking TO MUSTERION to TO KATECWN, but this borders on the
fallacy of equating natural gender with grammatical (i.e.MUSTERION is gram-
matically neuter, but if it is a person we would expect masc. gender, unless
unless the word MUSTERION is itself being modified; cf. Jesus' assertion to be
hH hODOS, which obviously does not make him feminine). On the equation of hO
KATECWON and hO ANOMOS, mea culpa. I did not say they were the same, but I
thought you were saying that, and I obviously misread you. The problem that
remains with KATECWN is that the masc. would seem more natural for Satan and
I don't think you can account for that with MUSTERION.

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