Mark 1:11

From: Mike Phillips (
Date: Sun Sep 08 1996 - 22:24:02 EDT

        Most translations take the aorist active indicative 1st sing EUDOKNSA
and render it in a present fashion, i.e., ASV, NRSV and NIV -- "I am well
pleased." BAG has a suggestion regarding the aorist: (s. BWBacon, JBL 20, '01,
28-30). I rendered this verse as follows: "You are my beloved son. In you I
took delight." or, alternatively, "I have delighted in you." Could someone
tell me why this aorist verb should stand in the present in most translations
(26+)? My own suspicion has to do with the charybdis (apologies to Carl if my
classical buffoonery is showing) of an adoptionist reading, but, there is a
great deal I don't know and would welcome any insights from folk who are better
prepared to address the present state of most renderings.

Mike Phillips

A word is not a crystal, transparent and unchanging;
it is the skin of living thought and changes from day
to day as does the air around us. - Oliver Wendell Holmes

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