From: Kevin W. Woodruff (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Oct 06 1996 - 15:54:48 EDT
From what I can gather, the Cognate accusitive is not a semeticism
necessarily. Plato uses it in _Protagoras_ (326 D), where A. T. Robertson
considers it "good Greek." It could however be a Semeticism that reflects
the Hebrew idiom throught the influence of the literalness of the LXX.
At 10:33 PM 10/5/96, you wrote:
> My first question is from Matt.1:18c, . . . Prin H sunelqein
>autous. . . . What is the purpose of the H in this passage? I use
>to know, but know I am totally dumbfounded! It is as if the
>sentence could be read without the H!
> Second, vs. 20 says ". . . Mh pobhqhs paralabein Mariam thn
>gunaika sou." I translated this as "Do not be afraid to take Mary
>(as) your wife." The only problem is the word 'as' is not in the
>text! Does anyone suggest the insertion of 'as' to make sense of the
>text? And if so, why doesn't the Greek test use the word 'ws'? This
>would seem to be good enough in any case!
> My last question is does anyone know anything about whether or
>not a cognate accusative is a phenomenon borrowed from semitic
>languages? The verse in my mind is Matt. 2:10 ". . . exaphsan xaran.
>. . ." The cognate accusative was indeed part of my training in
>claasical Greek, but I have to admit it is a strange animal, and it
>makes me wonder is such 'strangeness' due to English as my first
>language or a semitism in Greek.
>Thanks to all
>Peace and Love,
>Timothy T. Dickens
>Philosophy means the study of wisdom, and by wisdom we understand not only
prudence in affairs, but also a perfect knowledge of all things which man
can know both for the conduct of his life and for the conservation of his
>the invention of all the arts."
>Rene Descartes, French Philosopher, scientist and mathematician,
Kevin W. Woodruff
Cierpke Memorial Library
Temple Baptist Seminary
Tennessee Temple University
1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, TN 37404
423/493-4252 (phone) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
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