From: Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Jan 07 1997 - 04:22:00 EST
Lou Schwing wrote;
>>Jim, the rule of accent is that if a word with an acute on the antepenult
>>(third from last syllable) or a circumflex on the penult (second from
>>last), it receives a second accent (acute) on the ultima (last syllable).
>But why isn't this usage universal? For example, Mark 1:8?
There is no word in Mark 1:8 that has an accent on the antepenult followed
by an enclitic.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Fax (318) 442-4996
Phone (318) 487-7241
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