Re: Eph 4:20 EMAQETE TON CRISTON - why accusative?

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Fri Feb 14 1997 - 16:27:03 EST

At 03:26 PM 2/14/97 +0000, Maurice A. O'Sullivan wrote:
>At 08:50 14/02/97 -0500, you wrote:
>>Ephe 4:20 (GNT) humeis de ouc houtws emaqete ton Criston
>>Why is TON CRISTON accusative here?
>>Isn't the direct object of MANQANW the thing which is learned? Consider this:
>I see that Zerwick and Grosvenor say:
>"The use of MANQANQ and AKOUW (v.21) with dir. obj. of a person is unknown.
>Perhaps Paul thus emphasizes that what the Chrisian learns is the living

Hmmm...Blass, Debrunner, and Rehkopf mention this Ephesians 4:21 in section
173, which discusses the genitive with perception. They say:

"With AKOUEIN the person whom one hears speaking is in Genitive, as in
classical Greek, and as a rule the thing which one hears, but also PARA
TINOS (classical), APO/ and APO\ (DIA, EK) TOU STOMATOS TINOS; the thing
about which one hears spoken is in accusative, as it is in classical Greek
(footnote 4).

Footnote 4:
  Mt 11:4 == Lk 8:22. But also of a person: Ephesians 4:21."

I think this means that they disagree with Carl's statement:
> Which is to say, I do NOT think that AKOUEIN in Eph 4:21 means "hear about."

So we have three respected sources, Zerwick, BDR, and Carl, with three
different opinions. Welcome back to Greek grammar! And Carl is already
accusing me of opening another can of worms - really, I didn't write
Ephesians, I'm just trying to read it!

Does anybody have evidence to support one of the three current hypotheses?


Jonathan Robie
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