Re: authorship of Hebrews

From: Marty Brownfield (
Date: Sun Feb 09 1997 - 20:33:26 EST

> From: "Stephen C. Carlson" <>, on 2/9/97 12:35
> all we really know is that the author is a man (11:32)
> and is not Timothy (13:23).

Surely Stephen is right on the money here when he says 11:32 precludes the
author of Hebrews being a woman (Priscilla or anyone else). The author uses the
present middle masculine participle DIHGOUMENON to refer to himself.

Or are we wrong here? Is there any precedent for an authoress using masculine
participles when referring to herself? A common practice in modern times is to
use plural pronouns to refer to the author (the familiar "editorial we"). Is
there an ancient practice of an "editorial masculine"?

Marty Brownfield or

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