[Fwd: Re: Inerrancy and writing style]

From: Eric Weiss (eweiss@acf.dhhs.gov)
Date: Tue Feb 18 1997 - 17:59:40 EST

Like I wrote, I hope this doesn't start an argument, but I would like to
support the "inerrancy of the whole Bible" belief with Scriptural
statements and claims, not doctrinal statements, which I believe the
inerrancy position is - i.e., it is a conclusion (possibly correct,
possibly incorrect - and I can't tell you my stance because it is as yet
unformed in this area) derived from one's (and the Church's) view and
experience of Scripture, the nature of God, etc., but not an explicit
teaching of Scripture - but I could be wrong, hence my question to
B-GREEK in response to what Randy Leedy wrote. If it is not a required
belief as explicitly taught or commanded by Christ, the authors of
scripture or scripture itself, maybe one's errancy/inerrancy position
shouldn't be used to divide or label Christians.

Grace and Peace

Message-ID: <330A31BA.30B7@acf.dhhs.gov>
Date: Tue, 18 Feb 1997 14:48:26 -0800
From: Eric Weiss <eweiss@acf.dhhs.gov>
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>>> Randy Leedy (RLEEDY@wpo.bju.edu) wrote:

>>> Now we're back to the assumptions again: we cannot approach the
Scripture without them. Either we assume that the Bible is free of
error or we assume that it is not. Since it clearly claims the
former <<<

Okay ... I'm not trying to start or continue an argument ... but for
those of us who sometimes hear and read statements like this (which some
of us believe and some of us don't), WHERE in the Bible does "the
Bible...clearly claim" to be "free of error"? I'm taking your words
literally - where does "the Bible" - not individual books or epistles or
individual authors or specific statements or passages - where does THE
BIBLE claim this for itself? I'm not saying that it doesn't - but you're
saying that it does, and I'd like the scriptural reference for this

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