Re: Inerrancy and writing style

From: Ralph Cherry (
Date: Wed Feb 19 1997 - 00:56:38 EST

On Tue, 18 Feb 1997, Eric Weiss wrote:

> >>> Randy Leedy ( wrote:
> >>> Now we're back to the assumptions again: we cannot approach the
> Scripture without them. Either we assume that the Bible is free of
> error or we assume that it is not. Since it clearly claims the
> former <<<
> Okay ... I'm not trying to start or continue an argument ... but for
> those of us who sometimes hear and read statements like this (which some
> of us believe and some of us don't), WHERE in the Bible does "the
> Bible...clearly claim" to be "free of error"? I'm taking your words
> literally - where does "the Bible" - not individual books or epistles or
> individual authors or specific statements or passages - where does THE
> BIBLE claim this for itself? I'm not saying that it doesn't - but you're
> saying that it does, and I'd like the scriptural reference for this
> claim.

MY answer would be 2 Timothy 3:16, with an emphasis on the first phrase
in the English translation. As with other responses on the list, I
realize some people would work on the interpretation of that verse. But
to me it gives a sufficient answer for my own satisfaction.

R Cherry
FL Division
U of TX at San Antonio

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